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NEW QUESTION # 207
During the course of normal SOC operations, three anomalous events occurred and were flagged as potential IoCs. Evidence for each of these potential IoCs is provided.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review each of the events and select the appropriate analysis and remediation options for each IoC.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the complete solution below in Explanation:
Explanation:
Analysis and Remediation Options for Each IoC:
IoC 1:
Evidence:
Source: Apache_httpd
Type: DNSQ
Dest: @10.1.1.1:53, @10.1.2.5
Data: update.s.domain, CNAME 3a129sk219r9slmfkzzz000.s.domain, 108.158.253.253 Analysis:
Analysis: The service is attempting to resolve a malicious domain.
Reason: The DNS queries and the nature of the CNAME resolution indicate that the service is trying to resolve potentially harmful domains, which is a common tactic used by malware to connect to command-and- control servers.
Remediation:
Remediation: Implement a blocklist for known malicious ports.
Reason: Blocking known malicious domains at the DNS level prevents the resolution of harmful domains, thereby protecting the network from potential connections to malicious servers.
IoC 2:
Evidence:
Src: 10.0.5.5
Dst: 10.1.2.1, 10.1.2.2, 10.1.2.3, 10.1.2.4, 10.1.2.5
Proto: IP_ICMP
Data: ECHO
Action: Drop
Analysis:
Analysis: Someone is footprinting a network subnet.
Reason: The repeated ICMP ECHO requests to different addresses within a subnet indicate that someone is scanning the network to discover active hosts, a common reconnaissance technique used by attackers.
Remediation:
Remediation: Block ping requests across the WAN interface.
Reason: Blocking ICMP ECHO requests on the WAN interface can prevent attackers from using ping sweeps to gather information about the network topology and active devices.
IoC 3:
Evidence:
Proxylog:
GET /announce?info_hash=%01dff%27f%21%10%c5%wp%4e%1d%6f%63%3c%49%6d&peer_id%3dxJFS Uploaded=0&downloaded=0&left=3767869&compact=1&ip=10.5.1.26&event=started User-Agent: RAZA 2.1.0.0 Host: localhost Connection: Keep-Alive HTTP 200 OK Analysis:
Analysis: An employee is using P2P services to download files.
Reason: The HTTP GET request with parameters related to a BitTorrent client indicates that the employee is using peer-to-peer (P2P) services, which can lead to unauthorized data transfer and potential security risks.
Remediation:
Remediation: Enforce endpoint controls on third-party software installations.
Reason: By enforcing strict endpoint controls, you can prevent the installation and use of unauthorized software, such as P2P clients, thereby mitigating the risk of data leaks and other security threats associated with such applications.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: This guide offers detailed explanations on identifying and mitigating various types of Indicators of Compromise (IoCs) and the corresponding analysis and remediation strategies.
CompTIA Security+ Exam Objectives: These objectives cover key concepts in network security monitoring and incident response, providing guidelines on how to handle different types of security events.
Security Operations Center (SOC) Best Practices: This resource outlines effective strategies for analyzing and responding to anomalous events within a SOC, including the use of blocklists, endpoint controls, and network configuration changes.
By accurately analyzing the nature of each IoC and applying the appropriate remediation measures, the organization can effectively mitigate potential security threats and maintain a robust security posture.
NEW QUESTION # 208
A global manufacturing company has an internal application mat is critical to making products This application cannot be updated and must Be available in the production area A security architect is implementing security for the application. Which of the following best describes the action the architect should take-?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Creating a separate network for users who need access to the application is the best action to secure an internal application that is critical to the production area and cannot be updated.
Why Separate Network?
Network Segmentation: Isolates the critical application from the rest of the network, reducing the risk of compromise and limiting the potential impact of any security incidents.
Controlled Access: Ensures that only authorized users have access to the application, enhancing security and reducing the attack surface.
Minimized Risk: Segmentation helps in protecting the application from vulnerabilities that could be exploited from other parts of the network.
Other options, while beneficial, do not provide the same level of security for a critical application:
A . Disallow wireless access: Useful but does not provide comprehensive protection.
B . Deploy intrusion detection capabilities using a network tap: Enhances monitoring but does not provide the same level of isolation and control.
C . Create an acceptable use policy: Important for governance but does not provide technical security controls.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-125, "Guide to Security for Full Virtualization Technologies"
"Network Segmentation Best Practices," Cisco Documentation
NEW QUESTION # 209
A financial technology firm works collaboratively with business partners in the industry to share threat intelligence within a central platform This collaboration gives partner organizations the ability to obtain and share data associated with emerging threats from a variety of adversaries Which of the following should the organization most likely leverage to facilitate this activity? (Select two).
Answer: B,F
Explanation:
* D. STIX (Structured Threat Information eXpression): STIX is a standardized language for representing threat information in a structured and machine-readable format. It facilitates the sharing of threat intelligence by ensuring that data is consistent and can be easily understood by all parties involved.
* E. TAXII (Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information): TAXII is a transport mechanism that enables the sharing of cyber threat information over a secure and trusted network. It works in conjunction with STIX to automate the exchange of threat intelligence among organizations.
Other options:
* A. CWPP (Cloud Workload Protection Platform): This focuses on securing cloud workloads and is not directly related to threat intelligence sharing.
* B. YARA: YARA is used for malware research and identifying patterns in files, but it is not a platform for sharing threat intelligence.
* C. ATT&CK: This is a knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques but does not facilitate the sharing of threat intelligence data.
* F. JTAG: JTAG is a standard for testing and debugging integrated circuits, not related to threat intelligence.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* "STIX and TAXII: The Backbone of Threat Intelligence Sharing" by MITRE
* NIST SP 800-150, "Guide to Cyber Threat Information Sharing"
NEW QUESTION # 210
An endpoint security engineer finds that a newly acquired company has a variety of non-standard applications running and no defined ownership for those applications. The engineer needs to find a solution thatrestricts malicious programs and software from running in that environment, while allowing the non-standard applications to function without interruption. Which of the following application control configurations should the engineer apply?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step
Option A: Deny list
Deny lists block specific applications or processes identified as malicious.
This approach is reactive and mayinadvertently block the non-standard applications that are currently in use without proper ownership.
Option B: Allow list
Allow lists permit only pre-approved applications to run.
While secure, this approach requires defining all non-standard applications, which may disrupt operations in an environment where ownership is unclear.
Option C: Audit mode
Correct Answer.
Audit mode allows monitoring and logging of applications without enforcing restrictions.
This is ideal in environments with non-standard applications and undefined ownership because it enables the engineer to observe the environment and gradually implement control without interruption.
Audit mode provides critical visibility into the software landscape, ensuring that necessary applications remain functional.
Option D: MAC list
Mandatory Access Control (MAC) lists restrict access based on classification and clearance levels.
This does not align with application control objectives in this context.
CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide - Chapters on Endpoint Security and Application Control.
CASP+ Objective 2.4: Implement appropriate security controls for enterprise endpoints.
NEW QUESTION # 211
SIMULATION
[Security Engineering and Cryptography]
An IPSec solution is being deployed. The configuration files for both the VPN concentrator and the AAA server are shown in the diagram.
Complete the configuration files to meet the following requirements:
* The EAP method must use mutual certificate-based authentication (With issued client certificates).
* The IKEv2 Cipher suite must be configured to the MOST secure
authenticated mode of operation,
* The secret must contain at least one uppercase character, one lowercase character, one numeric character, and one special character, and it must meet a minimumlength requirement of eight characters, INSTRUCTIONS Click on the AAA server and VPN concentrator to complete the configuration.
Fill in the appropriate fields and make selections from the drop-down menus.
VPN Concentrator:
AAA Server:
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution below in Explanation
Explanation:
VPN Concentrator:
AAA Server:
NEW QUESTION # 212
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